Does the equal opportunity requirement, by requiring religious schools to accept policies that conflict with their doctrine, infringe upon the church’s religious exercise? Is the equal opportunity requirement a neutral policy in its effort to provide universal preschool?
If we refer to previous cases, we can see that decisions vary on what neutrality is when it comes to the church’s rights to religious establishment. In a case like Carson v. Makin, Judges ruled in favor of the families. The government’s requirement was ruled against because it barred families from using funding for any religious institution. The difference between these two cases lies in the restriction it places; in St. Mary Catholic v. Roy, the restriction placed was that funding would not be given without a formal agreement to the equal opportunity requirement. It still allows institutions of both secular and religious backgrounds to apply and get the funding, thus giving a neutral opportunity to all parties. In Makin, the restriction was that no religious institution could be funded at all, and this was an exclusion of religion as a whole. Ultimately, violating the family’s right to free exercise under the First Amendment.
Similarly, in Trinity Lutheran Church of Columbia, Inc. v. Comer, Justice Thomas found that the free exercise clause of the First Amendment was clearly created to prohibit laws that discriminate against religion. If the courts found that the state's requirement was an infringement on the church's free exercise clause, then the case would be handled differently. In Comer, the issue held was the states’ singling out religion itself and was ruled unconstitutional. However, in Roy, the law is seen as neutral because it doesn’t single out a specific religious faith or institution. Instead, it is willing to fund all preschools that sign up as long as they agree to the equal opportunity requirement, which many religious and secular schools have done.
Furthermore, in the Espinoza v. Montana Department of Revenue case, Judge Ginsburg states that the precedent set by the court established that neutral government action is not unconstitutional solely because it doesn’t benefit religious exercise. This ultimately implies that Judge Ginsburg is conveying that the government does not owe or have to give special benefits, such as allowing exemption from equal opportunity policies, to religion, and as long as a law remains neutral and treats all religions the same, then it is constitutional. The case also found that the government cannot deny public benefits solely because an institution is religious, but is that really what is occurring in this case?
I believe that the ruling should be in favor of the state, the requirements provided by the state, and the program itself are neutral and do not favor or pressure any religion. The state's actions in this case cannot be seen as targeting religion due to the fact that the separation of church and state in this case is already breached, as they allow all preschools of varying religions to receive funding. The state is not banning religious participation but conditioning funding on compliance with a neutral equal-opportunity policy.
The focus of the issue is neutrality and the exclusion of one religious group due to an unwillingness to sign the equal opportunity requirement. In the case that it is not a law that the church must agree to the requirement, they can choose not to, but they would have to forfeit receiving the funding. The program presented by Colorado’s DOEC should and does fund all schools, as the program was presented to the community as a universal program. While the exclusion of some churches is upsetting, it has been promulgated that the requirement is necessary to receive funding.

I am torn with this case because on one hand I agree with your argument as that the schools did not adhere to the requirement brought by the state and therefore got excluded . However, I am compelled to the opposing side of your argument because as "universal" preschool funding, opened to public, private, and religious schools, I don't think they should be able to able to exclude schools due to the state-made requirements. In opening up this funding to private and religious schools the state should have been aware that these entities already have certain qualifications for allowing students into their schools. If a family does not meet the schools general requirements, preschool or not, I believe they should have the right to exclude children based on their own district requirements that were in place before the opened universal funding. If the state wants to advertise this as "universal" funding then they should be accommodating to all schools preexisting or long standing student requirements instead of trying to force their own school requirements on any school that wishes to have a funded preschool program.
ReplyDeleteIn this case, I would side with the state. I do think that it is fair to exclude a religious school from receiving this funding for 2 main reasons. First being that it does not make it any more difficult for religious preschools to continue functioning and practicing their religion by being excluded from this program. Secondly, the goal of this universal preschool package was to get more kids into preschools and make them more accessible, not to promote religion through state funds.
ReplyDeleteI agree with your argument that the state's policy is neutral because it does not exclude religion outright, it instead has the same funding requirements for all schools. The comparisons to the other cases that set precedent are very helpful in showing the difference between a neutral rule that is applied to everyone and discrimination against religion. I think that this is a constitutional policy.
ReplyDeleteBased on my understanding of the case, I agree with your view that the court should rule in favor of the state. Specifically, religious schools were not required to participate in the program, and therefore, only had to comply with the equal opportunity requirement if they opted in. Consequently, I agree that the policy is neutral because this was a requirement for any school, regardless of religious affiliation, that chose to participate in the program. Therefore, the equal opportunity requirement does not infringe upon the school’s First Amendment rights.
ReplyDeleteI agree with your opinion. The state mandate is neutral as it applies to any and all individuals, religious and secular, and can be rendered "universal." The exclusion of schools is contingent on their choice on whether or not to opt in to the equal opportunity requirement. For that reason, religious institutions were not forced to participate. I can see the argument that perhaps it is a possible breach of neutrality in the sense that it could be considered "coercive" to schools that might not want to participate. However, in my understanding, this policy is in place to ensure the neutrality of these schools in requiring anti-discriminatory measures which is Constitutional under the First Amendment.
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